Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 11:19
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Does being poor build better character than being born rich?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
Is anyone else losing complete respect for the US at this point?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Why do you think Democrat favorability ratings are so low?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.